to Ben,
I would say that the "we" is more a "faithful remnant" of Israel than just "Israel", plain and simple, but the same idea applies.
Yes, the remnants of Ephraim & Judah (Israel), but not Israel itself. Just like Canadians are not Canada, neither Canada is Canadians.
Christians said he was the Messiah. Isaiah seemed to say that he was the faithful remnant of Israel whose suffering would redeem the whole of the nation. Isaiah 48.20; 49.3:
What Christians? Maybe you are referring to '1 Clement'. But that epistle was written well after Paul's letters.
Isaiah seemed to say that he was the faithful remnant of Israel whose suffering would redeem the whole of the nation. Isaiah 48.20; 49.3:
Did it occur to you the servants in Isaiah 48 & 49 may not be the same as the one in Isaiah 53? God could have several servants.
Certainly the description of the two servants do not match. As example, for the first one, it's about redemption of Israel. But the second one dies. So according to you, the author would want Israel to die.
And I am not sure the servant in 49:3 is Israel. Actually, according to the following verses, that servant is (allegedly) Isaiah, the receiver of revelations from God. And Isaiah is
"to restore the preserved of Israel" and made to be the savior of Israel, to the point of being considered Israel in 49:3.
So in Isaiah 53, the suffering servant is either a different one as in 49, or is meant to be Isaiah. But certainly not Israel itself.
(I always thought the second half of 'Isaiah' was not written by Isaiah, but well after his time, during the beginning of the Persian rule, by different author(s) who added "updates" at the end then of the existing text)
I think also bringing 'Daniel' and Origen in the picture is rather far-fetched.
And you ignore Marcion as a reference. Highly debatable.
gMarcion is not a reference on early (1st century) Christianity. GMarcion was written after gLuke:
http://historical-jesus.info/53.html
http://historical-jesus.info/62.html
I want to clarify my words here so as to avoid misunderstanding. I am not necessarily of the opinion that interpreting Isaiah's Suffering Servant messianically is an illegitimate move. If the faithful few can suffer redemptively for the rest of Israel, why not a faithful one? My point is that there is this deep interplay between singular figures (the servant, the branch, and so on) and either the collective whole of Israel or the collective group thought of as the "remnant". The few take on the burdens of the many, suffer for the many, and cling to wisdom/insight for the many. In some of the texts it is genuinely hard to tell who is who because the singulars and plurals fly by so quickly. But the point is that there is a fluid identity of sorts between the Messiah, the "remnant", and Israel as a whole.
It looks you put yourself in a fine mess by holding on Hosea 6:2.
Cordially, Bernard