Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

what is pure Judaism?

that is your word not mine

idiotic trick question, a sign of your desperation

No it is a direct result of the stupid assertions you make about 'Judaism.' When you put forward the word 'perversion' or 'perverting' in relation to a tradition it follows that the religion before this alleged 'perversion' was free of 'perversion' or purer. If you don't like the word 'pure' stop using moronic terminology like 'perverting'

And every aspect of your infantile thinking is pervade by this 'pure' vs 'perverted' dichotomy. You think that second century Christianity 'perverted' a 'pure' Galilean form of Christianity. In the same way there is a 'pure form' of Judaism which was 'perverted' by the Hellenists. It's stupid and unworkable to develop history this way unless you posit what this 'true' or 'pure' tradition was. It is interesting that you have no evidence for either of your assertions regarding a 'pure Judaism' and a 'pure Galilean' Christianity. Good sign you are living in a fantasy world.

Would you prefer opposed to "Ritual Laws"

What kind of rituals were they Stephen? "Jewish rituals maybe" Christianity threw out the window whole cloth?

So where do you get that the Pharisees or Hellenistic Jews opposed traditional Mosaic rituals?

Secret Alias wrote:And every aspect of your infantile thinking is pervade by this 'pure' vs 'perverted' dichotomy..

Stephens desperate ad hominem

I have factually never used "Pure" dichotomy

Your desperation is transparent

It's infantile because you shout with such bombast with little in the way of supporting evidence. They are just slogans and assumptions made up in your own imagination. You don't even try to cite any primary sources.

Here is the idiots guide to Hellenism for the hard of learning with ego's so large they stop education.

The main religious issue dividing Hellenized Jews from traditional Jews was the application of biblical laws in a Hellenistic (or Roman or other non-Jewish) empire.[6]

^ "Hellenism", Jewish Encyclopedia, Quote: "Post-exilic Judaism was largely recruited from those returned exiles who regarded it as their chief task to preserve their religion uncontaminated, a task that required the strict separation of the congregation both from all foreign peoples (Ezra x. 11; Neh. ix. 2) and from the Jewish inhabitants of Palestine who did not strictly observe the Law (Ezra vi. 22; Neh. x. 29). "

learn what your talking about. My opinion like always can just about be sourced VERBATIM

Not some imaginative BS claim

You are trying to draw a straight line from 'Hellenism' to Christianity over the issue of opposing 'Jewish rituals.' Problem is it doesn't work.

Post-exilic Judaism was largely recruited from those returned exiles who regarded it as their chief task to preserve their religion uncontaminated, a task that required the strict separation of the congregation both from all foreign peoples (Ezra x. 11; Neh. ix. 2) and from the Jewish inhabitants of Palestine who did not strictly observe the Law

So you really believe that the Pentateuch was written before Ezra? That the Torah was already known to the returning exiles. That's a clear sign of how you've inherited religious assumptions from religious believers. There are more than two dozen reasons for supposing that the Torah was written by Ezra. Number one on that list is that everyone (Jews, pagans, Christians, Muslims etc) has a version of the story that Ezra wrote the Torah. The second is the appearance of Persian terms, symbols, experiences in the text. There is no way that the Torah was written in any period before the Persian one.

Stupid assumption 1. What's the next stupid assumption in your theory?