Secret Alias wrote:
So the natural conclusion is that Luke rewrote Mark and then wrote Acts.
Agreed.
But this is in itself bizarre
I don't see it that way.
I view Mark as text rushed to preserve oral and written traditions due to the fall of the temple. With the fall of he temple, the whole way these early followers shared information yearly at Passover changed. No longer were these people gathering together sharing traditions in this drunken BBQ.
I see a later community after 2 decades of Mark circulating having to deal with the evolving mythology and theology that went past Marks, and this community had different ideas on what was important to their community. They viewed the text as incomplete, so did the redactors who added/changed the ending of Mark. The fact we have different accounts of the ending shows as an example the sheer diversity in beliefs before orthodoxy.
(1) he used Matthew to write Luke but even by the time Matthew rewrites Mark there is no mention in Matthew of the Ascension
I don't place dependence of Luke on Matthew. I view both as plagiarizing Marks text due to diversity in different geographic locations independently.
no mention in Matthew of the Ascension, again showing diversity in different early beliefs from one community to the next.
I also do not view Matthew as redacting Mark, less you have a tie to the Matthian authorship to one of the redacted endings, that I have never heard of.
(2) he used some common source with Matthew which again doesn't know about the Ascension.
I think there were many carried traditions with similarities oral and written we don't know about but guess. All these books were plagiarized compilations of sorts, and they only collected what they personally viewed as important.
So yes #2 is possible, but I would posit "they" not "he" for authorship.
Since Luke also knew Josephus and incorporated into his gospel
Is this not assumptive at this point?
Could Josephus not know the text attributed to Luke?
Luke made up the stuff about the Ascension.
Most of what was used was used rhetorically was done so combatively, to compete with others different traditions.
There is little reason to think this tradition did not exist prior, and was just now being addressed is said communities opinions.
And on the other side of the coin they may have used this myth to address the changing theology building a 40 day credible straight from the horses mouth "source" for the new teachings importance. If this is the case, its more likely they took a standing tradition and used it to convey the new message.
Did we get any later church fathers who heard traditions this did not take place? That is your area in detail. I would suspect a new unknown tradition changing the heart of the early mythology should have drawn some criticism.