Simon's Charges (Hom 3.38 - 39)
1. There is more than one god in the Pentateuch - "Why would you lie, and deceive the unlearned multitude standing around you, persuading them that it is unlawful to think that there are gods, and to call them so, when the books that are current among the Jews say that there are many gods?"
2. The god of the Pentateuch (and the god of Peter) is not the Supreme God - "first showing respecting him whom you call God, that he is not the supreme and omnipotent Being, inasmuch as he is without foreknowledge, imperfect, needy, not good, and underlying many and innumerable grievous passions."
3. The god of the Pentateuch has mental and personality defects (and thus there must be another god who is the Supreme god) - "Wherefore, when this has been shown from the Scriptures, as I say, it follows that there is another, not written of, foreknowing, perfect, without want, good, removed from all grievous passions. But he whom you call the Creator is subject to the opposite evils."
4. Adam was originally made after the (perfect?) likeness but was made deficient by the Jewish god out of jealousy - "Therefore also Adam, being made at first after his likeness, is created blind, and is said not to have knowledge of good or evil, and is found a transgressor, and is driven out of paradise, and is punished with death." The specific charge that Adam was blind is a mistake (perhaps deliberately) to obscure the original argument. We see from the Nag Hammadi literature was surely that God was blind, blind because he didn't know where Adam and Eve were hiding in the garden. The corollary of this (and perhaps Simon went into more detail in the original) is that Adam lost the Holy Spirit - the argument that Adam no longer had the Holy Spirit once Eve was taken from him no longer appears in the existing preamble of Simon but comes up briefly in the debate which follows "Then Simon: If Adam had foreknowledge, how did he not foreknow that the serpent would deceive his wife?" Peter's response "If Adam had not foreknowledge, how did he give names to the sons of men as they were born with reference to their future doings, calling the first Cain (which is interpreted 'envy'), who through envy killed his brother Abel (which is interpreted 'grief'), for his parents grieved over him, the first slain?"
5. The god of the Pentateuch is blind - "In like manner also, he who made him, because he sees not in all places, says with reference to the overthrow of Sodom, 'Come, and let us go down, and see whether they do according to their cry which comes to me; or if not, that I may know.' Thus he shows himself ignorant." This follows from the corruption that entered into (5). Instead of bringing up the powerful evidence that God lacked the ability to see where Adam and Eve were hiding in the garden, the later editors deliberately weakened the argument in order to say that Adam was blind - something that doesn't make sense from the narrative. Here in what follows it is clear that the original attack of Simon was against God being blind.
6. The god of the Pentateuch is ignorant - "And in his saying respecting Adam, 'Let us drive him out, lest he put forth his hand and touch the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever;' in saying Lest he is ignorant; and in driving him out lest he should eat and live for ever, he is also envious." This must have originally followed (4) more closely. As noted God must have been accused of being blind AND NOW ignorant owing to his blindness.
7. The god of the Pentateuch changes his mind. This shows God was inferior, ignorant and lacked foresight - "And whereas it is written that 'God repented that he had made man,' this implies both repentance and ignorance. For this reflection is a view by which one, through ignorance, wishes to inquire into the result of the things which he wills, or it is the act of one repenting on account of the event not being according to his expectation."
8. The god of the Pentateuch desires animal food/sacrifices (and thus has an animal soul)- "And whereas it is written, 'And the Lord smelled a scent of sweetness,' it is the part of one in need; and his being pleased with the fat of flesh is the part of one who is not good. " This is clearly also an objection of Peter's tradition. The two would have agreed here on the problems with this passage. Peter now blames the author of the Pentateuch for lacking the Holy Spirit when writing this - "But that He is not pleased with sacrifices, is shown by this, that those who lusted after flesh were slain as soon as they tasted it, and were consigned to a tomb, so that it was called the grave of lusts. He then who at the first was displeased with the slaughtering of animals, not wishing them to be slain, did not ordain sacrifices as desiring them; nor from the beginning did He require them. For neither are sacrifices accomplished without the slaughter of animals, nor can the first-fruits be presented. "
9. The god of the Pentateuch tempts people - "But his tempting, as it is written, 'And God did tempt Abraham,' is the part of one who is wicked, and who is ignorant of the issue of the experiment."
Peter's Response Preserves Other (Now Lost) Antitheses of Simon (Hom. 3.40 -)
10. Simon understands the god of the Pentateuch to ultimately be liable to an accusation of the sinfulness according to his own commandments (Homilies 3.40)(something that echoes the Marcionite narrative laid out in Eznik where Jesus - after the resurrection - ultimately accuses and serves the 'Jewish god' will a lawsuit using the Pentateuch and wins - "In like manner Simon, by taking many passages from the Scriptures, seemed to show that God is subject to every infirmity. And to this Peter said: Does he who is evil, and wholly wicked, love to accuse himself in the things in which he sins? Answer me this. Then said Simon: He does not. Then said Peter: How, then, can God be evil and wicked, seeing that those evil things which have been commonly written regarding Him, have been added by His own will! Then said Simon: It may be that the charge against Him is written by another power, and not according to His choice. Then said Peter: Let us then, in the first place, inquire into this. If, indeed, He has of His own will accused Himself, as you formerly acknowledged, then He is not wicked; but if it is done by another power, it must be inquired and investigated with all energy who has subjected to all evils Him who alone is good."
This is the clearest proof that Simon = Paul = Marcion and it has been completely missed by scholars who are unfamiliar with the Eznik Marcionite myth.
11. the God of the Pentateuch swears by a higher god than himself - Peter:"But to those who think, as the Scriptures teach, that God swears, He said, 'Let your yea be yea, and nay, nay; for what is more than these is of the evil one.' But this shows why the original objection of Simon was deleted. Simon is clearly manifesting an antithesis - i.e. the god of the Pentateuch swears by a power who is above him (cf many passages in the Church Fathers on the heretical interpretation here) but since there is no power greater than him. Note the gospel passage in Matthew "Just say a simple, 'Yes, I will,' or 'No, I won't.' Anything beyond this is from the evil one." (Homilies 3.55)
12. there is no resurrection - Peter (immediately adds after the last citation) And to those who say that Abraham and Isaac and Jacob are dead, He said, 'God is not of the dead, but of the living.' swearing. (ibid) This is a little more puzzling. The passage in Mark reads in full:
And regarding the dead rising, have you not read about the burning bush in the book of Moses, how God told him, ‘I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? He is not the God of the dead, but of the living.” You are badly mistaken!
So the argument appears in Mark to be directed against the Sadducees who say there is no resurrection. The Gospel of Mark of course has a difficulty. The passage is cited incorrectly. It is either (as the Masoretic and the LXX) I am the god of your father (sg) the God of Abraham etc.' or as the Samaritan text and Acts 'I am the god of your fathers (pl) the God of Abraham etc ...' The clear inference here is that these fathers are all dead. Somehow the passage inserted into the Gospel of Mark without either 'your father' or 'your fathers' (i.e. people who were all dead) turns this into an argument for the resurrection of the dead.
Hamilton sums up the bad argument here in his exegetical study of Exodus as follows:
How can Jesus cite Exodus 3:6 as point to the resurrection? We can agree that, without a knowledge of Jesus's citing this passage in the context he does, it is unlikely that anybody would read into the Exodus verse a resurrection emphasis in its original context. in Exod 3:6 god is simply introducing himself to moses by way of his connection with the patriarchs; he is not talking about postmortem existence. Furthermore, we can agree with meier (2000: 11), who observes that there is no Jewish exegetical tradition, before or after Jesus in ancient times, that uses Exod. 3:6 to argue for resurrection, and to that degree meier describes Jesus's take on Exod. 3:6 as “idiosyncratic.”
The standard way of making this all fit is to focus on Jesus's use of the verb “am” in the present tense “i 'am' [eimi] the god of . . . ,” not “i 'was' the god of . . . ,” although there is no verb “am” in either in Mark 12:26 or Luke 20:37 but only Matthew 22:27. 22:32. The former two are nominal sentences. so understood, Jesus implies that the patriarchs are still alive, for he is a god of the living, not of the dead.
Of course if I was a dogmatist I would simply leave the issue with a self-satisfied glow 'proving' that the argument is nonsense. In fact there is a solution to the whole issue here - one that probably deserves a separate thread. Why does the author of the gospel of the Ebionites think that Exodus 3:6 (and later canonical Mark) think that Exodus 3:6 is an argument for the resurrection. Because it goes to the heart of the proper interpretation of ehyeh is it 'I am' (as many scholars have argued based in part on the translation in Matthew 22.32) or is it 'I will be.' This is a very old argument in Hebrew linguistics but no one has bothered to note that Mark here sides with 'I will be' in this case
he is interpreted as saying 'I will be the God of your fathers, the god of Abraham, the god of Isaac etc.' In other words, rather than saying that he appeared to them he is clearly implying (what makes implicit sense) that the god who appeared to Moses was greater than that which appeared to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. This is why it is an argument for the resurrection because Abraham, Isaac and Jacob will come to know this other god in the future (hence the future tense) and Mark and Luke's lack of a verb. I think that is an important discovery and why Abraham is portrayed as saying the Law is 'good enough' for humanity (i.e. he needs to be redeemed/to repent in the future like the Jewish god).
13. Simon says God tempted Adam (and Jacob for that matter in the wrestling scene) - ' And to those who suppose that God tempts, as the Scriptures say, He said, 'The tempter is the wicked one,' who also tempted Himself.