Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

It seems to be מצרים also in Old Testament Hebrew:

Exodus 7:5
And the Egyptians shall know that I am the LORD, when I stretch forth My hand upon Egypt, and bring out the children of Israel from among them.

וידעו מצרים כי־אני יהוה בנטתי את־ידי על־מצרים והוצאתי את־בני־ישראל מתוכם


Interestingly, although it speaks of the Egyptians here, it is only written מצרים in the original, i.e. without the definitive article. Just like in Gittin 57a!


Some Old Testament Hebrew-English dictionaries, on the word "Egyptians":
https://archive.org/stream/hebrewenglis ... 6/mode/2up

https://archive.org/stream/acompleteheb ... 2/mode/2up

I see.

MrMacSon wrote:

Lena Einhorn wrote:
If so, the town -- in the Talmud associated with Christians -- is really presented as "Kefar Sekania of the Egyptians".

Perhaps "Egyptians" is a theological term? -ie. it refers to a community based on it's theology?

What's really suspicious about the Talmud's use of this term של מצרים ("of the Egyptians" or "of Egypt") in connection with Kefar Sekania, is that this Galilean town, Kefar Sekania, in the Talmud is mentioned only in the context of disciples of Yeshu Ha-Notzri. And at least three times.

Yes, I agree with you. I don't believe it means that the people in Kefar Sekania really came from Egypt, or that the town in any way belonged to Egypt. If it's not a spelling error, it must mean that the people there ascribed to something "Egyptian". Since, in fact, the Talmud writes that Jesus brought magic from Egypt, one interpretation would be that his disciples, the believers in his faith, were called "Egyptians", or something similar.

Again, some Talmud scholars have interpreted של מצרים as a spelling error, and that it rally should be "of (the) notzrim" של נוצרים. But if so, we come back to my original question, a couple of pages back: Was the Talmud term originally Yeshu Ha-Notzri, or Yeshu-Ha-Mitzri?

Listen you undisciplined wretched pseudo-scholar. You cannot make the Talmud say "of the Egyptians" (as if the village were somewhere outside of Egypt)!!!! The fact that you persist in this nonsense only shows the likely worthlessness of your other conclusions. LAST WARNING. Stop dabbling into things you know nothing about. Learn an ancient language. Cease and desist with this utter bullshit.

I have provided you with the plural form of מצרי IN ARAMAIC. Any more garbage from you I will take this to the next level.

Secret Alias wrote:
Listen you undisciplined wretched pseudo-scholar. You cannot make the Talmud say "of the Egyptians" (as if the village were somewhere outside of Egypt)!!!! The fact that you persist in this nonsense only shows the likely worthlessness of your other conclusions. LAST WARNING. Stop dabbling into things you know nothing about. Learn an ancient language. Cease and desist with this utter bullshit.

Yes, I think I shall cease and desist. I don't want to participate in a forum where language like this is used.

Yes it might be useful to be able to distinguish between Hebrew and Aramaic before developing theories from evidence written in Aramaic. I gave you the correct answer in a nice civil detached tone and then brushed it aside as if the truth were inconsequential. You should have just said "yes I was wrong" and moved on instead of persisting in things you know nothing about. The Talmud says this village was in Egypt. It cannot be read to be some code for "Christians" livintage outside of Egypt.

I was very polite 3 times and even took the time to provide you with explanations and examples. The truth is the truth. I hate selfishness. Research should not be about "me" or "my theory" but the truth and only the truth. You can't make the text say what you want it to say.

And just for the record. Assuming you are interested in learning something. You wrote:

Exodus 7:5
And the Egyptians (מִצְרַ֙יִם֙) shall know that I am the LORD, when I stretch forth My hand upon Egypt, and bring out the children of Israel from among them.

And then you went on to talk about a bunch of stuff that has nothing to do with the language in which the Talmud was written (but was just thrown up in the air as a last ditch defense of your selfish theory). But what is the corresponding ARAMAIC term in Exodus 7:5? Are you interested? Or - as I suspect - only interested in things as long as they advance your selfish theory. In case you are interested here is THE ARAMAIC (i.e. Targum's) rendering of THE HEBREW מִצְרַ֙יִם֙ (and our English 'Egyptians'). Take a guess which word appears here:

https://books.google.com/books?id=HCFAA ... us&f=false

You see how amazing life is? The truth is like mathematics. You can argue against 2 + 2 being equal to 4 but you end up looking stupider and stupider each time you do.