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Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 5:03 pm
by DCHindley
MrMacSon wrote:
DCHindley wrote:
Trobisch's position is a bit more nuanced than the assertion that all NT books were published as a single set. He based his opinion on the fact that most existing NT mss tend to group the four gospels together, the letters of Paul together (with Hebrews being a wild card), the book of Acts with the general epistles (Peter, James & John), and the Apocalypse all by its lonesome. His research on the Pauline corpus also suggests that multiple collections were combined, so it is possible that all these books had circulated independently.
When you say "existing NT mss", DCH, I presume you are referring to bound or codices of "existing NT mss" - essentially a bible or bibles(?)


I think that 'independent circulation in the existing mss' is also ambiguous -viz. -
DCHindley wrote:
However, there does not seem to be much in the way of evidence for independent circulation in the existing mss. In short, almost all NT mss seem to have derived from a single set of exemplars (four Gospels, Acts+General epistles, Letters of Paul, Revelation, or abbreviated as e, a, p, r). He identifies a possible publisher of this exemplar as Polycarp of Smyrna.
I mean existing mss of the NT books. These mss usually have groups of books, falling into the groups e, a, p & r. Trobisch presents his case in The First Edition of the New Testament. He also calls it the "Canonical Edition" because these four groupings of books are how the canonical NT is generally found.

There are a few exceptions to the order of the books in each grouping (that has more than one book), but the order of books in mss strongly suggests to Trobisch that virtually all mss of NT books come from a single "canonical" edition of e, a, p or r. I do not think that requires all four of them to have been published at the exact same time, but the publisher of these four editions was regarded as especially authoritative, as his (or her) editions superseded all previous editions.

Someone will undoubtedly blame this on poor ol' Constantine, or on hapless Eusebius.

DCH

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 7:15 pm
by Kapyong
Gday GakuseiDon and all :)
Kapyong wrote:I argue that he means :
We do not worship anybody who was crucified on a cross, certainly not a criminal like the rumours say we do. Because our worship has nothing to do with a mortal man.

Am I correct that you argue he means something like this ? :
We do not worship a criminal who was crucified on a cross - because Jesus Christ crucified was not a criminal, but the Son of God who was not really a mortal man.
GakuseiDon wrote:Yes, that's correct. Remember, the charge by the antagonist Caecilius is this:
".. he who explains their ceremonies by reference to a man punished by extreme suffering for his wickedness, and to the deadly wood of the cross, appropriates fitting altars for reprobate and wicked men, that they may worship what they deserve."

IOW, Christians are evil because they worship a wicked man. Octavius's response is that Christians don't worship a criminal, in fact they don't even worship a man.
So you're saying he meant they that really worship a God ?
A son-of-God ? Called Jesus Christ ? Who was crucified on a cross of wood ?

But never once mentioned the word 'Jesus' or 'Christ' or 'crucifixion' or 'son of God' ?

While refering to the cross as 'deadly wood ' ? And discussing the 'cross' like this :
You, indeed, who consecrate gods of wood, adore wooden crosses perhaps as parts of your gods. For your very standards, as well as your banners; and flags of your camp, what else are they but crosses glided and adorned? Your victorious trophies not only imitate the appearance of a simple cross, but also that of a man affixed to it. We assuredly see the sign of a cross, naturally, in the ship when it is carried along with swelling sails, when it glides forward with expanded oars; and when the military yoke is lifted up, it is the sign of a cross; and when a man adores God with a pure mind, with andsoutstretched. Thus the sign of the cross either is sustained by a natural reason, or your own religion is formed with respect to it.

And mentioning the blood sacrifice for a pagan son of God :
The Roman sacrificers buried living a Greek man and a Greek woman, a Gallic man and a Gallic woman; and to this day, Jupiter Latiaris is worshipped by them with murder; and, what is worthy of the son of Saturn, he is gorged with the blood of an evil and criminal man.

No,
there is no way that author believed in a crucified son of God Jesus Christ.
GakuseiDon wrote:Note that the author refers to "Christians" quite a few times throughout the letter, without referring to any other groups of Christians. Yet we know by the time that M. Felix wrote that there were Christians who thought that Christ had been crucified on the cross. Keeping that in mind, let's revisit your thought on what the writer meant:
  • We do not worship anybody who was crucified on a cross, certainly not a criminal like the rumours say we do. Because our worship has nothing to do with a mortal man.
Wouldn't a response "Hey, Christians don't worship anybody who was crucified" be confusing to those pagan and Christian readers who had heard those rumours about Christians with such beliefs? Whereas if the rumours were that Christ was a crucified mortal wicked man, which is the actual charge being made, my reading of the response makes sense.
M.Felix certainly knew of Christians who believed in the crucifixion, yes. And I think it's crystal clear that he did NOT.

The response "Hey, Christians don't worship anybody who was crucified" would be EXACTLY the expected response for a Christian who did not worship anybody who was crucified, but had heard claims that they did.

Your reading only makes sense IF M.Felix believed in a crucified God - which is what you are trying to show.

Pardon me GakuseiDon, you've done some great analysis :)
This isn't :(


Kapyong

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 7:26 pm
by Ben C. Smith
Kapyong wrote:No,
there is no way that author believed in a crucified son of God Jesus Christ.
What do you think the author did believe? What, in your view, made him a Christian, to his own way of thinking?

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 8:00 pm
by Kapyong
Gday Ben C. Smith and all :)

Thanks for your friendly and thoughtful input :)
Ben C. Smith wrote:Well, not exactly, but, when you say that Irenaeus was the first to name the four gospels, it can sound like those texts did not have names before Irenaeus. But to assert that one of the memoirs hails back to Peter and that some hail back to apostles and to followers of the apostles seems pretty specific, and seems to me to imply that people in Justin's time did have names for these texts. Whether they were the same names as Irenaeus knew is perhaps an open quetion: does Justin's statement imply that one was called the gospel/memoirs of Peter, for example?
It was just not quite clear to me what you meant by Irenaeus being the first to name the gospels.
Fair comment - I'll be more careful to distinguish observations from inferences.

Observations :
  • Papias mentioned writings by Mark from Peter, and by Matthew.
  • Aristides mentioned a single un-named 'Gospel, as it is called'
  • Justin has books 'called Gospels' attributed to apostles or followers, and Peter.
  • Tatian harmonises four (presumably un-named) books into the FromFour
  • Irenaeus is the first to list all four Gospels names.
Inferences :
  • These books were CALLED 'Gospels' as if that was a formal title.
  • The term 'memoirs' was not quite a formal title.
  • Justin's comment about Peter being an author comes from Papias' comment.
  • Tatian knew only one name (Peter) and was not convinced about it.
  • Irenaeus WAS the first to attach those four names to the Gospels.
  • G.Mark was named because of the Peter reference going back to Papias' Mark reference.
  • G.Matthew was named because of Papias' comment, even though it didn't match well.
  • G.Luke was named for Paul's companion.
  • G.John was now attributed to John (instead of Cerinthus IIRC.)
Kapyong

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 8:24 pm
by Kapyong
Gday Bernard Muller and all :)
Kapyong wrote:Not at all.The Gospel authors were clearly connected, they must have been aware of each other and their work. But who-ever and where-ever they were, they were hidden from all other Christians on record. The Gospels were not available to anyone to compare with history.
Bernard Muller wrote:And how would that be? How could they be aware of work of the others without having a copy of their work? And if the gospel authors must have been aware of each other and their work, how do you explain that other Christians at large were not aware also of these gospels? To be aware of these gospels, why did you need to be a gospel author?
Pardon ?
Of course they had access to a copy of each other's work, or at least a copy of one, G.Mark. There are obviously connections between the Gospel authors (and presumably a small community surrounding each.)

But I OBSERVE that other Christians at large did not mention the Gospels (until later, when everyone mentions and praises and quotes them endlessly.) I know you argue that many Christian books have quotes, or allusions to Gospels, but I do not think your dependencies are particularly solid.
Bernard Muller wrote:Even if a copy of these gospels were not available to everyone, that does not mean there were no copies of the original work.
I'm glad we agree :)
Bernard Muller wrote:You assume the four gospel authors were working on their own gospel at the same time, in the same room and constantly checking what the others had been writing. Like that they would be aware of the work of the others without referring to copies.
OR
Somewhere in Christiandom, there was a library where only gospel authors could consult the original manuscripts of previously written gospels. But these manuscripts would be hidden to other Christians.
No, I don't assume either of those straw-men.
Bernard Muller wrote:What is your explanation about gospel author knowing the work of others only through their original manuscript?
I don't claim that.


Kapyong

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 8:44 pm
by Kapyong
Gday all :)

[quote=""Kapyong"]I would be thrilled if you could spare the time for a look at my central page[/quote]
Bernard Muller wrote:So now Paradise is a place where anyone can be crucified by spirit demons. :lol:
So now you ridicule my work with a dismissive one-liner and even laugh in my face ?
Why are you being so rude and immature Bernard ?

I read your site thoroughly. I complimented you on your research, (but disagreed on many of your conclusions), I linked to your site from mine, I sometimes recommend your site on certain issues.

I reached out a friendly hand to you, with suggestions for improving the look of your site. I took the time to update your graphic into a nice new coloured version, which you liked - at first.

But suddenly you gave me the cold shoulder, and stopped talking to me :(

Now you're openly laughing in my face - why ?
What happened Bernard ?
Bernard Muller wrote:Cordially, Bernard
Cordially ?
More like 'Rudely, Bernard'


Kapyong

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 8:59 pm
by MrMacSon
Kapyong wrote:
Observations :
  • Papias mentioned writings by Mark from Peter, and by Matthew.
Inferences :
  • Justin's comment about Peter being an author comes from Papias' comment.
  • G.Mark was named because of the Peter reference going back to Papias' Mark reference.
  • G.Matthew was named because of Papias' comment, even though it didn't match well.
Hi again, Kapyong. Do you mean Papias mentioned writings by a Mark and by a Matthew? or by the Mark and the Matthew?

How likely do you think those inferences are?

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 9:13 pm
by GakuseiDon
Bernard Muller wrote:to Gakuseidon,
Actually, I think that this is not such a silly idea. It depends on where Paradise is located, and whether Satan can have agency there. Kapyong is using the Book of Adam, which does indeed seem to suggest Satan being active in Paradise. If there was an Adam Christology in early Christianity, then having the stories of the first Adam and the last Adam set in such a Paradise would be consistent with that Adam Christology. E.g. Satan tempts the first Adam to eat of the Tree and sin enters the world; Satan has the last Adam crucified on the Tree and the world is saved from sin. I'd be interested to see how far Kapyong can take this.
The Greek version (probably written not earlier than the third century) has "third heaven" but it is certainly an interpolation: http://historical-jesus.info/15.html
Furthermore, this "third heaven" is not in the Latin, Slavonic and Armenian versions.
"Third heaven" appears also in the Georgian version, which is overtly Christianized, and again does not make sense within the textual context:
http://historical-jesus.info/16.html
Certainly the garden of Eden = Paradise is located on earth in the OT, not in third heaven.
The Paradise in which Adam and Eve lived was on earth, certainly. But 2 Enoch (also referenced in your second link) has this:
  • 8.1 And those men took me thence, and led me up on to the third heaven, and placed me there; and I looked downwards, and saw the produce of these places, such as has never been known for goodness.
    2 And I saw all the sweet-flowering trees and beheld their fruits, which were sweet-smelling, and all the foods borne by them bubbling with fragrant exhalation.
    3 And in the midst of the trees that of life, in that place whereon the Lord rests, when he goes up into paradise; and this tree is of ineffable goodness and fragrance, and adorned more than every existing thing; and on all sides it is in form gold-looking and vermilion and fire-like and covers all, and it has produce from all fruits.
    4 Its root is in the garden at the earth’s end.
    5 And paradise is between corruptibility and incorruptibility.
What this does IMO is give plausibility to Kapyong's idea. He still has a long way to go, but he is starting in a good place -- in my opinion. Of course, I'm just an amateur. My only claim is that I've read widely from primary sources (in English translation only!) and secondary sources. We -- me, Kapyong and yourself -- are all just well-read amateurs. It doesn't mean we are wrong, or that we think we are wrong; but I suspect we are all waiting for the overhanging boot of the professional to squash us. I'd like to see where Kapyong takes this.
Bernard Muller wrote:The rest of Kapyong's ideas is very far-fetched: "Satan has the last Adam crucified on the Tree [of Life] and the world is saved from sin"
To be fair, those are my words. I don't want to be putting words into Kapyong's mouth!

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 10:07 pm
by Kapyong
Gday GakuseiDon and all :)
Kapyong wrote:I would be thrilled if you could spare the time for a look at my central page
Bernard Muller wrote:So now Paradise is a place where anyone can be crucified by spirit demons. :lol:
GakuseiDon wrote:Actually, I think that this is not such a silly idea. It depends on where Paradise is located, and whether Satan can have agency there. Kapyong is using the Book of Adam, which does indeed seem to suggest Satan being active in Paradise. If there was an Adam Christology in early Christianity, then having the stories of the first Adam and the last Adam set in such a Paradise would be consistent with that Adam Christology. E.g. Satan tempts the first Adam to eat of the Tree and sin enters the world; Satan has the last Adam crucified on the Tree and the world is saved from sin. I'd be interested to see how far Kapyong can take this.
Thanks for that objective neutral approach GakuseiDon :)

Yes, the key question is just where is Paradise in the Third Heaven, and which heaven is that ?

How many heavens did Paul believe in ? Seven ? Ten ? 365 ?

I think Paul had a very simple model like so :
Image

Which I have also drawn like so :
Image

So,
Paradise is somewhere inside the Third Heaven - the highest heaven, where God can operate, and presumably angels do too.

But Satan was cast out of (presumably the Third) Heaven, possibly down to the First Heaven, the Air - to be Prince of Power of the Air - where he causes trouble as an archon of this aeon.

Leaving me with some questions :
  • How is Satan able to crucify Jesus Christ in the Third Heaven ?
  • The Third Heaven is NOT of 'flesh' (like the First Heaven, the Air is) - how do I explain Jesus Christ having 'flesh' now ?
Kapyong

Re: The Gospels Were Not Published Until c.150

Posted: Sat Oct 22, 2016 10:14 pm
by GakuseiDon
Kapyong wrote:
IOW, Christians are evil because they worship a wicked man. Octavius's response is that Christians don't worship a criminal, in fact they don't even worship a man.
So you're saying he meant they that really worship a God ?
A son-of-God ? Called Jesus Christ ? Who was crucified on a cross of wood ?
Not quite. Remember that Octavius is responding to the charges being made against the Christians of his day:
  • "Some say you worship the priests' penises!" "No, we don't. But you guys do that!"
  • "You kill babies as part of your ceremonies!" "No, we don't. But your gods like Saturn killed babies!"
  • "You have incestuous orgies!" "No, we don't. But your gods did! The Egyptians and Athenians did!"
The author is taking those charges against Christians and in most cases turning them back on the pagans. He wasn't trying to explain Christianity.

So we go onto the two charges we are interested in:
  • "You worship a wicked man who was killed for his crimes!" "No, we don't worship a criminal. No criminal nor any mortal man could be believed to be god. But the Egyptians used to take a man and claim he is god!"
  • "You worship actual crosses. Fitting altars for wicked men!" "No, we don't worship or wish for crosses. But the shape of the cross is used by you guys! You can see the shape of the cross 'when a man adores God with a pure mind, with handsoutstretched. Thus the sign of the cross either is sustained by a natural reason, or your own religion is formed with respect to it.'"
Now, think of those responses coming from a proto-orthodox Christian like Justin Martyr or Tertullian. Wouldn't the responses be consistent with their beliefs? He is defending all Christians, not just his group. If so, why is this non-orthodox Christian giving the orthodox Christians a free pass?
Kapyong wrote:But never once mentioned the word 'Jesus' or 'Christ' or 'crucifixion' or 'son of God' ?
Yes, but we have the example of Tertullian's "Ad nationes", where he did the same thing: take the criticisms against Christianity and then turn them back on the pagans. In fact, scholars suspect some kind of connection between M. Felix's work and Tertullian's "Ad nationes". He doesn't once mention the word 'Jesus' or 'Christ' or 'son of God', etc. It's clear from his other works that he believed in a Jesus Christ, so why not mention that name in his letter?
Kapyong wrote:While refering to the cross as 'deadly wood ' ? And discussing the 'cross' like this :
You, indeed, who consecrate gods of wood, adore wooden crosses perhaps as parts of your gods. For your very standards, as well as your banners; and flags of your camp, what else are they but crosses glided and adorned? Your victorious trophies not only imitate the appearance of a simple cross, but also that of a man affixed to it. We assuredly see the sign of a cross, naturally, in the ship when it is carried along with swelling sails, when it glides forward with expanded oars; and when the military yoke is lifted up, it is the sign of a cross; and when a man adores God with a pure mind, with andsoutstretched. Thus the sign of the cross either is sustained by a natural reason, or your own religion is formed with respect to it.

Yes. Tertullian did the same, in "Ad nationes". He defends the sign of the cross in very similar words, as in the quote below.
  • As for him who affirms that we are "the priesthood of a cross," we shall claim him as our co-religionist. A cross is, in its material, a sign of wood; amongst yourselves also the object of worship is a wooden figure... Examples are not far to seek. Your victories you celebrate with religious ceremony as deities; and they are the more august in proportion to the joy they bring you. The frames on which you hang up your trophies must be crosses: these are, as it were, the very core of your pageants. Thus, in your victories, the religion of your camp makes even crosses objects of worship; your standards it adores, your standards are the sanction of its oaths; your standards it prefers before Jupiter himself, But all that parade of images, and that display of pure gold, are (as so many) necklaces of the crosses. in like manner also, in the banners and ensigns, which your soldiers guard with no less sacred care, you have the streamers (and) vestments of your crosses. You are ashamed, I suppose, to worship unadorned and simple crosses.
But I have to ask: why is M. Felix defending the sign of the cross? Isn't it those other Christians who use the cross in their beliefs? What is he trying to accomplish here?
Kapyong wrote:And mentioning the blood sacrifice for a pagan son of God :
The Roman sacrificers buried living a Greek man and a Greek woman, a Gallic man and a Gallic woman; and to this day, Jupiter Latiaris is worshipped by them with murder; and, what is worthy of the son of Saturn, he is gorged with the blood of an evil and criminal man.

No,
there is no way that author believed in a crucified son of God Jesus Christ.
I agree that we can't say for certain that the author believed in a crucified son of God Jesus Christ, but we can say:
(1) His answer to the charge that Christians worship a criminal and his cross is (in my view) consistent with proto-orthodox Christians of his time.
(2) He calls himself a Christian and seems to refer to Christians as a single group.
(3) Many of the charges against the Christians that he addresses (e.g. incestuous orgies, killing babies in ceremonies, dogs tied to candles, atheism, secret rites, worshipping an ass'es head, worshipping actual crosses) were also addressed by Tertullian, Justin Martyr and other orthodox Christians.

One option I considered was that M. Felix might have been a docetist. Thus 'not even a man' and not crucified. But even that doesn't seem as likely as M. Felix being a proto-orthodox Christian. Since I believe his answers are consistent with such beliefs, there is (in my opinion) simply no need to posit another group of Christians.
Kapyong wrote:Your reading only makes sense IF M.Felix believed in a crucified God - which is what you are trying to show.
Yes, that's right. It's not because M. Felix tells us that, it's because it is the simpler conclusion: we know that there were Christians who believed in a crucified God in M. Felix's time. M. Felix's statements are consistent with such beliefs. Thus, in the absence of further evidence, I conclude that it is most likely that M. Felix held beliefs consistent with the orthodox of the day.

No doubt that it is confusing that the author doesn't mention 'Jesus' or 'Christ', but we do have the example of Tertullian's letter I gave above where we see the same thing. (I argue that Tatian is another example but that can be for another day.) If you can think of a reason why Tertullian doesn't do it but that can't be used to explain M. Felix, I'd be interested to hear it.