Re: Probability about Jesus (Christ) existence on earth
Posted: Sat Nov 19, 2016 5:11 pm
That is exactly what I am talking about, too: what is the probability that calling Jesus the descendant of Jesse means that the person so calling him thought of Jesus as a literal human being?Bernard Muller wrote:to Ben,I do not give a hoot if Jesus was a descendant of Jesse or not. What matters is that phrase implies literally Paul was taking Jesus as an earthly human (in the past).But what you are describing is a set of interdependent events. For example, if you were able to find out for certain that, when Paul wrote "descendant of Jesse", he meant it literally, would that not change your perception of the odds that, when he wrote "descendant of David", he also meant it literally?
Yes, and that was a mistake.I rated the probabilities for the two phrases at 80% & 80% separately, regardless of the other one (and other phrases in Romans implying historicity through a literal reading).
I have none. I think that they definitely imply belief in an earthly, human Jesus. That is not our difference here. This is all about the math, which you are misusing because you cannot, for some reason completely opaque to me, see that your factors are interdependent, that one of them being reckoned either true or false necessarily must change our estimate of the odds of (at least some of) the others.BTW, what would be your arguments on one or two of these phrases about not implying the historicity of Jesus?
For whatever it may be worth, I personally think that 50% is, if anything, too low as an initial estimate for any one of those statements. But Peter's 1% for the remaining statements, contingent upon that initial statement being false, sounds pretty close to correct to me. After all, if we could be 100% certain that Paul meant one of those statements in a nonliteral sense, the rest of the statements of a similar nature would immediately become very suspect.
So, to recap and hopefully save us some confusion, if those statements are legitimately part of Paul's letters (and not interpolations), then I think the chances are very high that Paul thought of Jesus as an earthly human. I am not at all a fan of any of Doherty's or Carrier's business about a superterrestrial, sublunar crucifixion. You and I agree (at least mostly) on that, I believe.
ALL such values are going to be subjective. We are assigning probability to human behavior here, not to coin flips. His illustration showed you exactly how the odds are changed for interdependent events: that is what you are not getting. You think his initial 50% was too low or too high? Very well, then change it. Make it 80%. No problem. You think his successive estimates of 1% (contingent, as interdependent events have to be, upon the falsity of the first one) are too low? Very well, then change them. Make them 5% or something. But to make them 80%, same as the first, demonstrates that you are thinking of these events as independent, like coin flips; it demonstrates that you are treating Paul like a random writing machine, sometimes spouting mythicist rhetoric, sometimes historicist, all willy-nilly, as random as a coin flip.If you do not agree with my 80%, please tell me why and change my rating.[/quote
I am not entirely uncomfortable with 80% as a rating for your first instance; I am okay with that. But it is impossibly high for the remaining instances which are interdependent with the first. (For the record, I do not even remember which one you listed first; all that matters is that the initial probability can be quite high, while any interdependent events described thereafter must necessarily be lower, precisely because they are not independent.)
Why on earth are you asking me to defend arguments that I myself find insupportable??Please come up with arguments defending that Paul could have meant "descendant of Jesse" mythically.
He did! He went through the whole process, assigning values he deemed fit for interdependent events. You objected to the low values of those events after the first one, but you did so because you still did not understand why it makes a difference whether the events are independent or not. (Even once you understand the principle, you are free to object, but hopefully on the basis of true knowledge, not of ignorance.)
No he did not. His values were not mathematically defined, and he suggested they may not be realistic.
This is my last memorandum on this topic, unless specific critiques of the mathematical principles I am discussing can be leveled at me. If you still do not "get it", despite Peter's best efforts to educate you on the matter, then I leave you to it.