spin wrote:Michael BG wrote:spin wrote:
While I'm not convinced on the argument you are responding to, it is difficult to use the Similitudes for dating purposes. … Whatever the case, 1 Enoch doesn't seem like a safe benchmark to date anything by.
I was going to post a reply regarding the Grabbe article that questioned the date of the Similitudes of Enoch. However Grabbe gave me the impression that there was now general agreement to a first century dating. John J Collins in The Apocalyptic Imagination (p 177-78) addresses J. T. Milik. Both Collins and Grabbe use 56:5-7 and particularly 67:5-13 to date it post 4 BCE and the lack of any mention of the Temple's destruction or Jewish Revolt to date it to before 66 CE.
I don't think one should expect a text written—according to Milik—in 270 to mention either the fall of the temple or the Jewish war—especially
if it is a christian production. I haven't seen what Grabbe or Collins say, but I have seen a lot of dating analyses of the Similitudes in scholarly literature. None seem to deal with his contextualization which include for example an explanation for 1En 56:5's reference to Medes, a term used for the Palmyrenes who were active in the later 3rd century. But Milik's date hasn't been received well and the reference to Parthians and Medes is reduced to a stereotypical references to Parthians (with Medes thrown in for no substantive addition). No-one seems impressed with his trajectory from the fifth book of Sibylline Oracles which he thinks is the source of allusion to the invasion of Judea by the Parthian Pacorus (in 40 BCE) as well as apocalyptic material in 1En 56. Against Milik one datum frequently referenced regards hot springs and kings visiting them for their health but being vexed in their spirit (67:8), taken as a reference to King Herod visiting Callirhoe in his old age. In its context it seems hopeful to me. I'd be interested to know what Grabbe has to add on the dating—if he goes beyond the data already evinced over the last 40 years—, as I think he is a trustworthy commentator.
The only other information on dating I have seen is an attack on Milik because he put too much reliance on the Similitudes of Enoch not being at Qumran.
spin wrote:The whole SoM thing is hard to grasp given its humble origin in Dan 7:13. The chapter describes several beings, each representing realms, each like known beings. One is like a lion, another like a bear, then a panther, one like a creature that seems to be an elephant and the last is "one like a son of man". Naturally this one represents God's people. But we know that "son of man" is a simple poetic means of describing a person, which Daniel 8:17 shows, when the phrase is used for the character of Daniel. The RSV gives "mortal", putting "son of man" into a footnote. So Dan 7:13 deals with a being of human appearance, which is how angels are often represented (eg Mk 16:5), though "son of man" bears no special significance. We are missing the steps that transform this descriptive phrase into a messianic title. One can guess the steps. 1) Daniel is uncoupled from its historical context. 2) 7:13 is isolated from its context of national entities. 3) The angelic figure, "one like a son of man" coming on the clouds, is transformed into a messianic figure. 4) The being like a son of man part is lost, while "son of man" is elevated as a reference to the messianic figure. But those steps we just don't have.
I wonder if the steps are already present in Daniel 7:14
And to him (the one like a son of man) was given dominion
and glory and kingdom,
that all peoples, nations, and languages
should serve him;
his dominion is an everlasting dominion,
which shall not pass away,
and his kingdom one
that shall not be destroyed.
The son of man figure is a monarch ruling the world forever.
iskander wrote:
In John 12:34 Jesus is asked this question : who is this son of man?
34The crowd answered him, ‘We have heard from the law that the Messiah* remains forever. How can you say that the Son of Man must be lifted up? Who is this Son of Man?
Have you considered John 12:34 ?
John 12:32-35a
[32] and I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself."
[33] He said this to show by what death he was to die.
[34] The crowd answered him, "We have heard from the law that the Christ remains for ever. How can you say that the Son of man must be lifted up? Who is this Son of man?"
[35] Jesus said to them, "The light is with you for a little longer. …
I think John is using the idea of Jesus being lifted up to not only represent his crucifixion but also his resurrection and his being lifted up into heaven. I think John created this section with its identification of Jesus with the Son of Man and he is not using any words which his community might have received as going back to the historical Jesus.
spin wrote:Michael BG wrote:Mark had a suffering Son of Man figure who is raised after death. Mk 13:24 talks of the Son of Man coming with glory. It sounds more like the gospel of John. Luke has 21:27 which is based on Mk 13:24. So the only really relevant saying is 24:26 within the road to Emmaus resurrection appearance. One saying does not really make a theme. Neither Lk 12:8-9 nor Mt 10:32-33 has the word glory.
Mk 13:26 is derived—probably indirectly—from Dan 7:13-14: SoM and clouds from v.13 and power and glory from v.14. I don't think anything can be made of the presence of "glory" only in Mk 13:26.The parallels in Mt 24:30 and Lk 21:27 both feature glory (though interestingly they both have "power and great glory", whereas Mk 13:26 has "great power and glory").
Well spotted I did mean Mk 13:26.
Mark has
ἐρχόμενον ἐν νεφέλαις μετὰ δυνάμεως πολλῆς καὶ δόξης.
Coming in clouds with power much and glory.
δυνάμεως being translated as power
I found this Septuagint version in Greek of Daniel 7:14
14 καὶ ἐδόθη αὐτῷ ἐξουσία, καὶ πάντα τὰ ἔθνη τῆς γῆς κατὰ γένη καὶ πᾶσα δόξα αὐτῷ λατρεύουσα· καὶ ἡ ἐξουσία αὐτοῦ ἐξουσία αἰώνιος, ἥτις οὐ μὴ ἀρθῇ, καὶ ἡ βασιλεία αὐτοῦ, ἥτις οὐ μὴ φθαρῇ.
I think ἐξουσία is being translated as authority (dominion) and δόξα as glory.
I think therefore it is unlikely that Mark had his copy of Septuagint Daniel 7:14 open in front of him when he wrote this verse. And so indirectly as you suggested.