outhouse wrote:Michael BG wrote:
Today I was reading “Comparing Paul and Luke on Paul’s conversion” by Thomas E Phillips in Acts and Christian Beginnings where he states that Gal 1:13 should be translated as “how aggressively I harassed” rather than “violently persecuted” (p 115). It could be translated as “I pursued the assembly and harassed it”.
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As it stands that he did violently persecute them.
Me personally it comes down to who hired Paul? who would need to hire Paul? why would Paul pursue this sect ...
outhouse wrote: (to Tod Stites regarding Paul)
You have no evidence the Pharisees hired him to head hunt Christian sects in the Diaspora or went with him. I wish we had more to go on.
No primitive speech gospel is behind his conversion and you can leave Damascus out of it as Acts is fiction.
Here you say "Acts is Fiction" and you deny the historical veracity of the first parts of chapter 9 of Acts.
Later in this thread regarding your assertion that "Paul tells you he goes to synagogues and he get his ass kicked", you admit that Acts is your source for this and that your assertion is not otherwise supportable. But you go on to say about Acts,
outhouse wrote:Not fictional, just contradicts Pauline textual traditions.
Despite Acts prose and contradictions, it is not void of historical evidence for the first century movement.
... it makes you happy I should have stated "Pauline traditions said so" instead of "Paul tells us" just to avoid conflict.
That brings us to your assertion in the first box of my reply here, that Paul violently persecuted early Christians and that someone hired him to do so.
If you are willing to admit that the "traditions" in Acts or other later matreial is your source for this belief, then I have no problem with that.
But if you claim that Paul's letters provide significant support, then you need to provide better evidence than a few apologetic translations of Galatians 1:13 where the term "violently" has been inserted. "Violently" does not occur in the Greek text and, IMO, is likely added here by a few translators under the influence of the "traditions" in Acts. And Paul's use of ἐπόρθουν (in the imperfect, "I was endeavoring to destroy") does not necessarily imply violence for certainly one can endeavor to destroy ideas, doctrines, and beliefs with rhetoric.
If you insist on clinging to such a questionable translation, perhaps you can provide a cogent argument based on the text. Can you provide an analysis of how, in all the other parts of his (seven) letters, Paul uses the terms καθ’ ὑπερβολὴν (exceedingly or according to exceeding measure) and ἐδίωκον/διώκω (I was pursuing or persecuting/to pursue or to persecute)?