Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

robert j wrote:

outhouse wrote:

robert j wrote:Did Paul invent and construct the Greek compound term ἀρχαγγέλου --- archangel?
.

NO.

used only twice, there and in Jude, Some interpreters understand this reference to be an allusion to the events described in Zechariah 3:1-2

So we have evidence of even later Christian traditions plagiarizing OT text in the context of known archangels

Do you understand the question? Its about the term ἀρχαγγέλου --- archangel. Its about possible word-smithing by Paul. Zechariah 3:1-2 contains the common term for angel, in both the Greek and the Hebrew --- not archangel. There are many references to angels in the OT ---- but the term ἀρχαγγέλου does not occur in the LXX.

robert j wrote:

Because the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a loud command, with the voice of an archangel (ἀρχαγγέλου), and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we, the living remaining, will be caught away together with them in the clouds for the meeting of the Lord in the air; and so we will be always with the Lord. (1 Thessalonians 4:16-17)

The two questions I will address here about 1 Thessalonians 4:16 are –--

Did Paul invent and construct the Greek compound term ἀρχαγγέλου --- archangel?

PHE De confusione linguarum [On the Confusion of Tongues] 1:146 And even if there be not as yet any one who is worthy to be called a son of God, nevertheless let him labor earnestly to be adorned according to his first-born word, the eldest of his angels, as the great archangel of many names; for he is called, the authority, and the name of God, and the Word, and man according to God's image, and he who sees Israel.

PHI [Περι Συγχυσεως Διαλεκτων] 1:146 κἂν μηδέπω μέντοι τυγχάνῃ τις ἀξιόχρεως ὢν υἱὸς θεοῦ προσαγορεύεσθαι σπουδαζέτω κοσμεῖσθαι κατὰ τὸν πρωτόγονον αὐτοῦ λόγον, τὸν ἀγγέλων πρεσβύτατον, ὡς ἂν ἀρχάγγελον, πολυώνυμον ὑπάρχοντα· καὶ γὰρ ἀρχὴ καὶ ὄνομα θεοῦ καὶ λόγος καὶ ὁ κατ᾽ εἰκόνα ἄνθρωπος καὶ ὁ ὁρῶν, Ἰσραήλ, προσαγορεύεται

PHE De somniis [On Dreams, that they are God-sent] 1:157 XXV. But the dream also represented the archangel, namely the Lord himself, firmly planted on the ladder.

PHI [Περι Toυ Θεοπεμπτοτς Ειναι Τους Ονειρους] 1:157 ἐμήνυε δὲ τὸ ὄναρ ἐστηριγμένον ἐπὶ τῆς κλίμακος τὸν ἀρχάγγελον, κύριον·

PHE Quis rerum divinarum heres sit [Who is the Heir of Divine Things] 1:205 And the Father who created the universe has given to his archangelic and most ancient Word a pre-eminent gift, to stand on the confines of both, and separated that which had been created from the Creator.

PHI [Περι Tot Τισ Ο Των Θειων Εστιν Κληρονομος] 1:205 τῷ δὲ ἀρχαγγέλῳ καὶ πρεσβυτάτῳ λόγῳ δωρεὰν ἔδωκεν ἐξαίρετον ὁ τὰ ὅλα γεννήσας πατήρ, ἵνα μεθόριος στὰς τὸ γενόμενον διακρίνῃ τοῦ πεποιηκότος.

Did Paul intend the archangel as symbolizing his Lord Jesus Christ?

robert j wrote:Someone please correct me if I’m wrong here, but as far as I know, the term ἀρχαγγέλου (archangel) is not found in the Greek in any literature generally dated to be earlier than 1 Thessalonians.

robert j wrote:Did Paul invent and construct the Greek compound term ἀρχαγγέλου --- archangel?

DCHindley wrote:Apparently not.

PHE De confusione linguarum [On the Confusion of Tongues] 1:146 And even if there be not as yet any one who is worthy to be called a son of God, nevertheless let him labor earnestly to be adorned according to his first-born word, the eldest of his angels, as the great archangel of many names; for he is called, the authority, and the name of God, and the Word, and man according to God's image, and he who sees Israel.

PHI [Περι Συγχυσεως Διαλεκτων] 1:146 κἂν μηδέπω μέντοι τυγχάνῃ τις ἀξιόχρεως ὢν υἱὸς θεοῦ προσαγορεύεσθαι σπουδαζέτω κοσμεῖσθαι κατὰ τὸν πρωτόγονον αὐτοῦ λόγον, τὸν ἀγγέλων πρεσβύτατον, ὡς ἂν ἀρχάγγελον, πολυώνυμον ὑπάρχοντα· καὶ γὰρ ἀρχὴ καὶ ὄνομα θεοῦ καὶ λόγος καὶ ὁ κατ᾽ εἰκόνα ἄνθρωπος καὶ ὁ ὁρῶν, Ἰσραήλ, προσαγορεύεται

PHE De somniis [On Dreams, that they are God-sent] 1:157 XXV. But the dream also represented the archangel, namely the Lord himself, firmly planted on the ladder; for we must imagine that the living God stands above all things, like the charioteer of a chariot, or the pilot of a ship; that is, above bodies, and above souls, and above all creatures, and above the earth, and above the air, and above the heaven, and above all the powers of the outward senses, and above the invisible natures, in short, above all things whether visible or invisible; for having made the whole to depend upon himself, he governs it and all the vastness of nature.

PHI [Περι Toυ Θεοπεμπτοτς Ειναι Τους Ονειρους] 1:157 ἐμήνυε δὲ τὸ ὄναρ ἐστηριγμένον ἐπὶ τῆς κλίμακος τὸν ἀρχάγγελον, κύριον· ὑπεράνω γὰρ ὡς ἅρματος ἡνίοχον ἢ ὡς νεὼς κυβερνήτην ὑποληπτέον ἵστασθαι τὸ ὂν ἐπὶ σωμάτων, ἐπὶ ψυχῶν, ἐπὶ πραγμάτων, ἐπὶ λόγων, ἐπὶ ἀγγέλων, ἐπὶ γῆς, ἐπ᾽ ἀέρος, ἐπ᾽ οὐρανοῦ, ἐπ᾽ αἰσθητῶν δυνάμεων, ἐπ᾽ ἀοράτων φύσεων, ὅσαπερ θεατὰ καὶ ἀθέατα· τὸν γὰρ κόσμον ἅπαντα ἐξάψας ἑαυτοῦ καὶ ἀναρτήσας τὴν τοσαύτην ἡνιοχεῖ φύσιν.

PHE Quis rerum divinarum heres sit [Who is the Heir of Divine Things] 1:205 And the Father who created the universe has given to his archangelic and most ancient Word a pre-eminent gift, to stand on the confines of both, and separated that which had been created from the Creator. And this same Word is continually a suppliant to the immortal God on behalf of the mortal race, which is exposed to affliction and misery and is also the ambassador, sent by the Ruler of all, to the subject race.

PHI [Περι Tot Τισ Ο Των Θειων Εστιν Κληρονομος] 1:205 τῷ δὲ ἀρχαγγέλῳ καὶ πρεσβυτάτῳ λόγῳ δωρεὰν ἔδωκεν ἐξαίρετον ὁ τὰ ὅλα γεννήσας πατήρ, ἵνα μεθόριος στὰς τὸ γενόμενον διακρίνῃ τοῦ πεποιηκότος. ὁ δ᾽ αὐτὸς ἱκέτης μέν ἐστι τοῦ θνητοῦ κηραίνοντος αἰεὶ πρὸς τὸ ἄφθαρτον, πρεσβευτὴς δὲ τοῦ ἡγεμόνος πρὸς τὸ ὑπήκοον.

As far as I know, Philo probably predates or might be roughly contemporaneous with Paul, if the traditional early-mid 1st century [35-55] CE date for him is correct. So, I guess "Paul" did not invent this term.

davidbrainerd wrote:Now that I really think about it, rather than viewing 1st Thes as a forgery in Paul's name as I have been viewing it, I need only recognize that the latter part of verse 16 is all that's necessary for 1st Thes 4:13-18 to work. The unPauline bit that contradicts Romans 5 and 1st Cor 15 by bringing in Daniel is fully contained to the beginning of verse 16, and could therefore be interpolation.

"13 But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope. 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him. 15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep. 16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven [with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God:] and the dead in Christ shall rise first: 17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. 18 Wherefore comfort one another with these words."

Remove the bolded words in brackets, and the thought is fully Pauline, no notion of the resurrection established by the book of Daniel but still as something unaccomplished in the OT which Christ established.

This also explains why the resurrection here is still in the Pauline form of a resurrection for believers only and nothing about a resurrection of the unsaved followed by a tossing into hell is introduced. An interpolator must be much more concise than a forger!