Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

True, the emphasis is deliberately on the fact that Jon didn't rise, Jesus did.

John was beheaded, just as, according to tradition, the Civis Romanus Paul.

Aren't both the burial by the his own disciples and the beheading the particular signs of the relative importance of John, in terms of popularity, in comparison to an obscure Jesus?

Was Paul's method of execution based upon Roman Law?
The following dissertation may provide some food for thought.

Giuseppe wrote: ↑Thu Feb 14, 2019 11:11 amAren't both the burial by the his own disciples and the beheading the particular signs of the relative importance of John, in terms of popularity, in comparison to an obscure Jesus?

Acts 13: 24 - 25 (RSV):

[24] Before his coming John had preached a baptism of repentance to all the people of Israel.
[25] And as John was finishing his course, he said, `What do you suppose that I am? I am not he. No, but after me one is coming, the sandals of whose feet I am not worthy to untie.'

"And as John was finishing his course..."

What does that mean, "Finishing his course"?

John was a PRIEST. He is telling of one who came after him who was ranked before him. What does that mean? Immer follows Bilgah. Bilgah has committed an Offense against the Priesthood and THEREFORE the one who follows ranks higher.

"Jesus" was not obscure. He was INVENTED.

CW

Charles Wilson wrote: ↑Thu Feb 14, 2019 7:56 pm

Giuseppe wrote: ↑Thu Feb 14, 2019 11:11 amAren't both the burial by the his own disciples and the beheading the particular signs of the relative importance of John, in terms of popularity, in comparison to an obscure Jesus?

Acts 13: 24 - 25 (RSV):

[24] Before his coming John had preached a baptism of repentance to all the people of Israel.
[25] And as John was finishing his course, he said, `What do you suppose that I am? I am not he. No, but after me one is coming, the sandals of whose feet I am not worthy to untie.'

"And as John was finishing his course..."

What does that mean, "Finishing his course"?

John was a PRIEST. He is telling of one who came after him who was ranked before him. What does that mean? Immer follows Bilgah. Bilgah has committed an Offense against the Priesthood and THEREFORE the one who follows ranks higher.

"Jesus" was not obscure. He was INVENTED.

CW

Charles Wilson wrote: ↑Fri May 30, 2014 11:57 am Another small data point became apparent a day or so ago. It's a background piece but it adds a little more to the understanding.

1. The Thesis is that many of the NT Stories came from 2 Passovers, the first in 4 BCE, where at least 3000 people died and a Duplicate Passover in 9 CE, There at least one Priest preparing for the 9 CE Passover, making one last Call to Glory to Purify the Temple and have God stand with the Priesthood to eliminate the Herodians and the Romans. These Stories have been dismembered and rewritten for a different end.

2. The Mishmarot Service Group "Immer" is on Duty at both of these Passovers. They live in Upper Galilee and journey to Jerusalem for their Service.

3. A week or so ago, I began looking at John. He appears to be from the Group "Bilgah" and Bilgah is not worthy to untie the thong of the sandal of He Who Follows. Why? Bilgah missed a rotation at Mishmarot (Or Miriam, of Bilgah, beat on the Altar with a sandal, screaming something like, "Wolves are at the gate" (Those Greeks, again...) "and this is how you defend us?")

Therefore, the Word Play, lost as usual, finds Bilgah on Duty the week before Passover and Immer ("Immer" <=> "Immar" <=> "LAMB") on Duty for both Passovers the following week.

4. IS THAT ALL THERE IS? NO!

Something else is important here. The Mishmarot Groups rotate in on the Sabbath. One other item: These 2 Passovers begin on the Sabbath as well.

5. Why is that important? I claim that the Stories of these 2 Passovers have been telescoped and collapsed into one Story. The Story is the Initiation of the Crucifixion Motif and there was no Crucifixion at the Passover of 4 BCE. In the Synoptics, the "Crucifixion" occurs ON PASSOVER. In John, the Crucifixion occurs on the DAY OF PREPARATION, the day before Passover. Do I need to review this Material through the Centuries?

Here is the resolution of this Problem:

6: If both Passover weeks begin on Saturday, the "Symbolic Crucifixion" of the Synoptics occurs at the appropriate level of Symbolism: The Passover Slaughter occurs on the Watch of Immer, the Lamb.
The Crucifixion of John OCCURS ON THE DAY OF PREPARATION, however, and this is the last day of Bilgah's Service! The Priest who will be conducting the Coup on this Passover has been intercepted and murdered.

7. Bilgah is there for a reason. The Priest of Immer dies before the Week of Immer's Service.

CW
posting.php?mode=quote&f=3&p=12772

Interesting theory.

I follow Greg Doudna: John the Baptist was Hyrcanus II.

The reason why Herod is considered a priori an evil king in the Gospels, without the same prudence used with Pilate, is that Herod was the killer of the Essene Teacher of Righteousness/Hyrcanus II aka John the Baptist.

So the Shilo's prophecy was realized by the death of "John the Baptist", the last legitimate king of Judea. After him only the Messiah could arrive.

arnoldo wrote: ↑Sat Feb 16, 2019 5:57 am Interesting theory.

Thanx.

Since 2014 the Time Line has been tightened up quite a bit. Bilgah serves [Tuesday Night-Wednesday], [Wednesday Night-Thursday], [Thursday Night-Friday] to explain "Destroy this Temple and in three days I will build a new one...". Immer Consecrates the New Temple as it rotates into Service on the Sabbath [Note: Keep your Sabbaths straight. Part of the deception is continued with the notion that there is only one Sabbath in a week:

John 19: 31 RSV:

[31] Since it was the day of Preparation, in order to prevent the bodies from remaining on the cross on the sabbath (for that sabbath was a high day), the Jews asked Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away. ]

There were two "Crucifixions". One to serve as the Symbol for the Destruction of the "Lamb" - "Immer", and the second, in John, to the Crucifixion of the Priest who survived the first Conflagration.

The Math works beautifully: 24 Mishmarot Groups Serve one week for 24 x 7 = 168 days. The destruction of the Temple in Josephus gives the Anchor Date for the Destruction occurring on Jehoiarib's Course. This uses a Solar Calendar, advocated by the Qumran Group.

There's even a small note for the fans of "Jesus' Crucifixion" occurring in 33. Joseph of Arimethea touches a dead body before Passover. He is Unclean. He cannot attend the first Passover but can attend the second, a month later. Who is on Duty for the Second Passover? Jehoiarib.

Another alternative is that "Jesus" is Unclean at the "Raising of Lazarus" so HE cannot attend the first Passover ("Will he attend? Will he appear?") but can attend the second. Joseph can attend the first and take down the body at the second.

All of this points to someone or some Group who had access to the Texts and left behind a Story that was unseen by the Roman Overseers. Zakkai? The posited Weitzman Group in Northeastern Galilee area? I dunno.

They knew it all and if, for example, Vespasian had the Zakkai survivors from Yavneh write from the captured archives, they left Tell-Tales of Math and Geography - to say nothing of the characters.

I believe that there is much more. The physical evidence is there, esp. in Galilee. To give a nod to the OP, the discussions of Metaphysical Beings can occupy the Christian Hierarchies forever (and their critics...) but the Jewish/Hebrew Stories of Mishmarot have not been examined and the Story is there ON THE GROUND. Luke mentions Abijah and it is seen as a minor detail ("By the way, I'm from Ames, Iowa!!!" or whatever). The Mishmarot Groups are where the "Real Story' is, however. The drive for Christian Transvaluation has been overwhelming. I believe this Story is there in the data, even if I cannot see all the details.

Thanx again.

CW