PhilosopherJay wrote:Hi maryhelena,
Cassius Dio uses the term ἐμαστίγωσε σταυρῷ προσδήσας. It really is anachronistic to translate stavro as cross here.
I have no argument with the word 'cross'. Stake, pole - it's an instrument of suspension that is relevant not the word that is used to denote any specific type of suspension instrument used.
The word is used hundreds of times before the Third century and overwhelming it is used to mean some kind of stake or pole or some kind of suspension instrument made out of wood. In some hundred or more accounts of the word stavros in an execution, the shape of the stavros is never (or almost never) described as a cross because the stavros could be any shape. Even the NT gospels never describe the shape of the stavros. The point wasn't the shape, but that it was a brutal punishment.
Agreed.
The word Prodesas (bound) was used by Plutarch to describe another torture.
Duris the Samian makes a tragical drama out of these events, charging the Athenians and Pericles with a great deal of cruelty, which neither Thucydides, nor Ephorus, nor Aristotle have given any relation of, and probably with little regard to truth; how, for example, he brought the captains and soldiers of the alleys into the market-place at Miletus, and there having bound them fast to boards for ten days, then, when they were already all but half dead, gave order to have them killed by beating out their brains with clubs, and their dead bodies to be flung out into the open streets and fields, unburied. Duris however, who, even where he has no private feeling concerned, is not wont to keep his narratives within the limits of truth, is the more likely upon this occasion to have exaggerated the calamities which befell his country, to create odium against the Athenians.
Plutarch's mention of Antigonus is quite in passing as an example of Mark Anthony's abuse of authority -- "For although he had invested several private persons in great governments and kingdoms, and bereaved many kings of theirs, as Antigonus of Judaea, whose head he caused to be struck off (the first example of that punishment being inflicted on a king), yet nothing stung the Romans like the shame of these honours paid to Cleopatra." In other words, the Romans didn't care about his using his power to make or break Kings, but only that he honored Cleopatra.
It is hard to believe that Plutarch and Josephus would ignore the torture of Antigonus if he knew about it and just use the unprecedented beheading of a king. They relish this kind of thing in their writing.
Re Josephus on not mentioning Antigonus being hung alive on a cross/stake/pole/suspension - yes, it's interesting that he did not do so. Perhaps it's a bit like 'the dog that did not bark in the night'....i.e. rather than supposing Josephus did not detail the suspension of Antigonus on a cross/stake/pole because no such thing happened to Antigonus - there could well be a motive for his silence.
It is also too coincidental that whipping and beheading were both done to a king for the first time here. My guess would be that Dio Cassius wanted to show the unprecedented cruelty that Anthony had done. Anthony was the subject of his writing here. However, Dio Cassius probably knew that beheading an enemy king was not unrepresented as Plutarch and Josephus thought. Ventidus, proconsul of Syria had cut off the head of Pacorus, the son of a Parthian king the year before in 38 B.C.E. Anthony ordered Cicero's head cut off too, and Antigonus had cut off the head of Herod's brother. To emphasize the cruelty of Anthony, Cassius may have invented the unnecessary whipping that went before the common place beheading. By inventing this detail, he at least got the spirit of Josephus and Plutarch right.
Warmly,
Jay Raskin
Perhaps, but Jay, perhaps not.
It is interesting that the beheading is spoken of here as though it had never before happened that Rome had done such a thing to a King.
(Josephus does mention the beheading (in 49 b.c) also at Antioch, of Alexander, who would have, at that time, considered himself the legitimate heir to his father, Aristobulus II. - being the elder brother of Antigonus)
I'm wondering if the point about "the first example of that punishment being inflicted on a king" is not related to the beheading but to what would have been the case if Antigonus had been hung alive on that cross/stake/pole/suspension instrument. i.e. its the fact that such a suspension was not a postmortem suspension but that the victim, Antigonus in this case, was hung up alive. That it was this, a Jewish King, or any King, hung up alive, that was the 'it never happened before' argument of the sources. Whereas beheading was 'normal', suspending alive a King on a cross/stake/pole was not.
On the Nahum Pesher of the DSS.
GUNNAR SAMUELSSON
Crucifixion in Antiquity
The mention of a victim being suspended alive on wood is evident. The
text echoes some apparently known event in the past (Alexander Jannaeus'
execution of the eight hundred Pharisees is commonly suggested).127
The text, labeled as a crucifixion account by Hengel, Kuhn and Chapman,
1 2 8 describes some kind of an ante-mortem suspension - but does not
reveal which kind. The event is mentionable by the author of the Pesher
since it is a violation of the Jewish tradition in Deuteronomy 21.22-23 - a
/?0s£-mortem suspension. The offense was that the wicked man suspended
men, in this case alive, not that he did it in a particular way (e.g., nailed
them with outstretched limbs on a cross-shaped execution tool). The reason
why the author of the Pesher stresses that they were alive while suspended
could be, as has been seen earlier, that the norm was a postmortem
suspension (coherent with Deut 21.22-23).
GUNNAR SAMUELSSON seems to have made quite a name for himself - and caused some disquite among some christians regarding JC probably not hung up on the standard christian cross. His webpage gives many media links regarding his book.
http://www.exegetics.org/Media.html
I've not read Samuelsson' book - just searched for a few words....
However, this is interesting:
Gospels don't say Jesus was crucified, scholar claims
Samuelson wants to be very clear about what he is saying and what he is not saying.
Most importantly, he says, he is not claiming Jesus was not crucified - only that the Gospels do not say he was.
http://religion.blogs.cnn.com/2010/07/0 ... ar-claims/
Interesting - so....the gospel JC suspended on a cross/stake/pole, tortured, scourged - did not die on that instrument of suspension - as that would defeat the purpose of such an instrument. The purpose being torture not execution of a live body. The crucifixion of dead bodies being to deny a normal burial - leaving the body to be ravished by the carrion birds. If this is so , then no wonder christians would be up in arms - but it might well throw some light on the fate of Antigonus...
Must read some more of this book - thanks PhilospherJay for mentioning it...
As of now:
Suspension = bodies dead or alive. However, Deut 21.22-23."When someone is convicted of a crime punishable by death and is executed, and you hang him on a tree, his corpse must not remain all night upon the tree; you shall bury him that same day, for anyone hung on a tree is under God’s curse. You must not defile the land that the Lord your God is giving you for possession". A postmortem suspension for a short while - thus 'saving' the body from the carrion birds and not defiling the land. Living bodies tortured.
Crucifixion = suspended dead bodies denied burial and left for food for the carrion birds. The final humiliation. The final humiliation of a crucifixion that Antigonus did not undergo.
I wonder what Ehrman, with his no tomb no decent burial argument, would make of all this...i.e. re Samuelson, it looks to be that 'crucifixion' relates to the suspension of
dead bodies that were to be denied a normal burial and left to the carrion birds.
-------------------
Bible doesn't say Jesus was crucified, scholar claims
He found very little evidence of crucifixion as a method of execution, though he did find corpses being suspended, people being hanged from trees, and more gruesome methods of execution such as impaling people by the belly or rectum.
The same Greek word was used to refer to all the different practices, he found.
That's what led him to doubt that the Gospels specify that Jesus was crucified.
At the time they were written, "there is no word in Greek, Latin, Aramaic or Hebrew that means crucifixion in the sense that we think of it," he says.
It's only after the death of Jesus - and because of the death of Jesus - that the Greek word "stauroun" comes specifically to mean executing a person on the cross, he argues.
http://www.thedominican.net/2010/07/bib ... t-say.html
[my bolding]
Tread softly because you tread on my dreams.
W.B. Yeats