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Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:21 am
by Giuseppe
Joseph D. L. wrote: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:16 am Also, didn't Stuart have to call you out because you deliberately misrepresented his position to help your case?

Yes, he did.
never done that. You are a liar. I buy Stuart's authority especially about his view on proto-John, where it serves me precisely to prove my point on Barabbas.

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:33 am
by Joseph D. L.
Giuseppe wrote: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:20 am The points criticized by Stuart are points where I admit easily the error and my folly. But as I have often said in this forum, about two thinks I have no doubt but absolute certainty:
  • 1) A celestial crucifixion in Paul and Hebrews
  • 2) Barabbas is the Gnostic Jesus criminalized by the Judaizers
I add in this thread the fact that Irenaeus gives further evidence about the last point.

I add in this thread that who denies the point 2 is for me really, sincerely, frankly, candidly, a colossal amazing idiot.
Irrelevant. You asked me to name just one scholar that rejects your claim about Barabbas and I did. Now admit that you are a fool like you said you would.

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:34 am
by Joseph D. L.
Giuseppe wrote: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:21 am
Joseph D. L. wrote: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:16 am Also, didn't Stuart have to call you out because you deliberately misrepresented his position to help your case?

Yes, he did.
never done that. You are a liar. I buy Stuart's authority especially about his view on proto-John, where it serves me precisely to prove my point on Barabbas.
Yes you did. You came up with an idea and named it after Stuart because that was your inspiration, and Stuart immediately told you that he wanted no claim for it and that you were misrepresenting his argument.

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:38 am
by Giuseppe
Joseph D. L. wrote: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:33 am You asked me to name just one scholar that rejects your claim about Barabbas and I did.
I have asked you only the name of a scholar:
  • (1) who assumes that in proto-John Jesus is anti-YHWH
  • (2) who disagrees, despite of point (1), with me on Barabbas
Stuart never talked about point (2) but only about point (1). I would be interested to hear him about point (2), but if he disagrees with me there, then I'm sorry but still I will think that I are entirely correct about Barabbas. The evidence is too much.

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:40 am
by Joseph D. L.
Here it is, btw:

viewtopic.php?f=3&t=4292&p=88700&hilit= ... law#p88695
But I may well appeal to the so-called ''Stuart's Law'' to explain the (apparently unexpected) marcionite acceptance of Barabbas, pace Michael_BG
And here is Stuart's response to you:
Jesus Barabbas and Barabbas achieve the same goal, just as Simon Peter and Peter do. It's a distinction without a difference.

BTW, Couchoud is just a guy, like you an me. And like you and me you can pick a piece here and there that makes sense, and you can discard what you think goes too far or is off course or false assumptions. He makes many, and so I back off that.

There is no real evidence of Jews and Christians in conflict until well past the 2nd century.

As for your insistence upon the 70 AD and passion stories, I think you miss the point. The introduction of a fixed time-space for the Jesus ministry was one of those elements introduced sometime in the 2nd century. If you look at Matthew there are hints of an earlier, version which lacked such elements. It was not Pilate but an unnamed Governor. Marcion's gospel introduced the specific timeline by saying "in the fifteenth year of Tiberius Caesar" replacing what was probably a generic "In those Days" we find in Matthew 3:1 and Mark 1:9, which IMO originally opened the proto-Gospel.

These are elements of "Stuart's Law" you cite. Remove these from your original and you find no specific time-space setting. Your argument is based too much on such elements.
So am I liar? Am I just making things up like Giuseppe? No. Giuseppe is the revisionist here.

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:44 am
by Giuseppe
In whiletime, I have found evidence that a fool named mountain_man is rather close to my view on Barabbas but he is basically wrong:

Anyway I feel like I have digressed a little here, but the point is that by 220 AD when Philostratus wrote the Life of Apollonius, Christianity was not well established. Consider for example that Marcion's hero in his Gospel was a ghost (there was no virgin birth) and his name was Isu Chrestos. Jesus does appear as Barabbas. My 5th century New Testament calls him Jesus Barabbas (edited by the likes of Origen of Alexandria who didn't want Jesus to be associated with murders it seems). To make it worse Bar Abbas means Son of the Father. So Jesus Barabbas becomes Jesus the Son of the Father. So Jesus' only appearance in Marcion's Bible is “And they released Jesus the Son of the Father. This is in part supported by the archaeological New Testament fragments, which incidentally are not Marcion's original, appearing in the decades ahead. In fact all the fragments are specifically not from Marcion's text. They are what was added to Marcion's text later (for example Hebrews and the Gospel according to John). What I wish to draw your attention to is that Jesus Christ is not mentioned here either, but rather the scribes used the two letters 'Iota Sigma' or “IS”. Just guessing here, could this stand for Isu? In short, the history of Christianity was not more solid that Philostratus' work by 220 AD, as I expect that Jesus Christ as we know him was invented by Constantine in the 4th century at the Nicean Council.

http://www.mountainman.com.au/Apolloniu ... restos.htm

He is correct to mean that Barabbas can only refer to marcionite Jesus.

But he is wrong to mean that the inventor of Barabbas was Marcion. Barabbas is clearly a criminalized figure.

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:44 am
by Joseph D. L.
Giuseppe wrote: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:38 am
Joseph D. L. wrote: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:33 am You asked me to name just one scholar that rejects your claim about Barabbas and I did.
I have asked you only the name of a scholar:
  • (1) who assumes that in proto-John Jesus is anti-YHWH
  • (2) who disagrees, despite of point (1), with me on Barabbas
So now I have to meet some other nebulous standard, one the is specific towards defending one of your claims while rejecting the other. What an absurd errand to put on someone.

Richard Carrier rejects John being anti-YHWHist, and he rejects your claim about Barabbas.

You lose you fucking idiot.

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:45 am
by Joseph D. L.
In whiletime, I have found evidence that a fool named mountain_man is rather close to my view on Barabbas
Because only fools believe this nonsense.

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:46 am
by Joseph D. L.
He is correct to mean that Barabbas can only refer to marcionite Jesus.
BARABBAS IS IN THE MARCIONITE GOSPEL YOU OBSTINATE MORON

Re: Evidence that Irenaeus knows the meaning of Barabbas ("Son of Father")

Posted: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:53 am
by Giuseppe
Joseph D. L. wrote: Fri Jul 10, 2020 7:46 am
He is correct to mean that Barabbas can only refer to marcionite Jesus.
BARABBAS IS IN THE MARCIONITE GOSPEL YOU OBSTINATE MORON
I answer to you by quoting what I had already named as Stuart's Law:
Giuseppe wrote: Wed Jun 20, 2018 6:56 am
Once an element is accepted as part of the story, rather than drop it if it conflicts with your theology, you flip it to match your theology. This is a spot on observation!

Hence, once Barabbas was interpolated in the Gospels, the marcionites continue to play with it.

How?

By interpreting Barabbas against the Judaizers. Stuart is very bravo to recognize his utility for Marcion:
Stuart wrote: Wed Jun 20, 2018 12:04 am

[personal speculation]
Personally, I think one aspect of it is real, Barabbas could well be a reference to the Jewish rebel Bar Kokhba, as the earthly king, as opposed to Jesus the heavenly king ("my kingdom is in heaven"). That is not to say Barabbas == Bar Kokhba, but rather as the one released by the Jews, he is a stand in for the concept of an earthly kingdom, and the early readers would be aware of his fate, and by implication anyone who called for such a Jesus. By the time the first church fathers popped up in the Severan era, this association was a lost memory, and the concept of Jesus having only a heavenly kingdom was the view of all the surviving sects.

I wont defend this concept, just throwing it out as speculation.
[/personal speculation]
But note that the trace of interpolation is still found in John. Next post I will write about it.