Was Irenaeus's Interpretation of Dan 9.24 - 27 = Judas's?
Posted: Sun Aug 24, 2014 10:15 am
I really think the only reason I spend time thinking about the history of the Bible and its interpretation in order to have 'revelations' and 'inspirations' like I had today. There have been a number of posts about the interpretation of Daniel 9:24 - 27. I started the discussion I think but Andrew Criddle mentioned an alleged parallel understanding in the Testament of Levi which coincided with Irenaeus's interest in the virgin birth (= 1 BCE). So I started thinking. What was Irenaeus's interpretation of Daniel 9:24 - 27?
I think Andrew Criddle agrees basically with my link between Apollinaris of Laodicea's system and Irenaeus's reference to Jesus being 'about 50' at his crucifixion during the reign of Claudius. If Andrew agrees (and I assume he does at least tacitly) that the forty nine years between 1 BCE and 48 CE form the 'seven weeks' the question becomes whether we imagine that Irenaeus follows Justin's identification of the 62 weeks happening BEFORE the 7 weeks (i.e. that 1 Darius to the Virgin Birth = 434 years) or is it possible that what is identified by Jerome as 'Apollinaris system' was really taken over directly from Irenaeus?
I hadn't thought about that before. I mean, one would assume that Irenaeus was dependent on Justin. I have suggested previously that Irenaeus falsified Justin's original text to make it conform to the Virgin Birth. But then there is the issue of the complete ignoring of Claudius's reign in Adv Iud and then ... what I just realized this morning.
While I was thinking today I remembered that in Book Two of Irenaeus's Adv Haer the Church Father NOT ONLY says that Jesus was 'almost fifty' in this book but also makes a lengthy point that those who argue that the 'year of favor' was just the one year of Jesus's ministry (i.e. Clement of Alexandria) are completely wrong. 'The year of favor' applies to the entire length of time from the apostles to the present age (i.e. the time when Irenaeus was writing = the reign of Severus).
This is a curious concept. It doesn't seem to have any scriptural support but - let's face - Irenaeus always finds a way to support his beliefs with scripture. The more I started to think about it, I could see that there were parallels between this understanding and Apollinaris's interpretation of the Seventy Weeks. Under this system the first 49 years (7 weeks) sees the establishment of the Church by 'the Christ' and then the following 434 years will see the Temple (= the Church) established culminating in the appearance of the Antichrist and the end of the world in 482 CE.
Irenaeus's statement (Adv Haer 2.22.1) that Isaiah's prophecy assumes a long period of 'favor' followed by a final 'judgment' fits Apollinaris's system perfectly even though Daniel 9:24 - 27 isn't mentioned explicitly:
Now whenever we develop a new interpretation like this we need to find something else - a piece of evidence - that supports the idea and is wholly independent from it. I think I found that in Eusebius reference in Book Six of Church History of a peculiar interpretation of the Seventy Weeks linked to the time of Severus:
But since Judas was a Christian (= notice the reference to 'the Antichrist') Jesus surely had to figure at some point during the chronology of Daniel which is made up of only a few basic building blocks. If Daniel 9:24 - 27 was a Lego set there would be one 'piece' 49 units long, another 434 units long and then two pieces 3.5 units long. In any event, there is no way to make the Seventy Weeks end in 202 CE.
But then again, Eusebius doesn't say that. The fact that the Antichrist was 'near' doesn't exclude the possibility that Judas's system was the same as Apollinaris's. Christians have been saying that the 'Antichrist' was 'near' forever. There were Christians who assumed that the 6000 years were ending in 300 or so years. That would be considered 'near' or 'at hand.'
All that Eusebius says really is that a figure c. 202 CE must have been raised to prominence owing to his conviction that he and his fellow co-religionists were living within the period of favor (= Daniel's temple being rebuilt). He alarmed his co-religionists by claiming that the Antichrist was coming soon to end the 'good times.' So I ask, was Irenaeus = Judas? After all 202 CE is the traditional date for the martyrdom of Irenaeus - http://books.google.com/books?id=FWM1bq ... CE&f=false
I think Andrew Criddle agrees basically with my link between Apollinaris of Laodicea's system and Irenaeus's reference to Jesus being 'about 50' at his crucifixion during the reign of Claudius. If Andrew agrees (and I assume he does at least tacitly) that the forty nine years between 1 BCE and 48 CE form the 'seven weeks' the question becomes whether we imagine that Irenaeus follows Justin's identification of the 62 weeks happening BEFORE the 7 weeks (i.e. that 1 Darius to the Virgin Birth = 434 years) or is it possible that what is identified by Jerome as 'Apollinaris system' was really taken over directly from Irenaeus?
I hadn't thought about that before. I mean, one would assume that Irenaeus was dependent on Justin. I have suggested previously that Irenaeus falsified Justin's original text to make it conform to the Virgin Birth. But then there is the issue of the complete ignoring of Claudius's reign in Adv Iud and then ... what I just realized this morning.
While I was thinking today I remembered that in Book Two of Irenaeus's Adv Haer the Church Father NOT ONLY says that Jesus was 'almost fifty' in this book but also makes a lengthy point that those who argue that the 'year of favor' was just the one year of Jesus's ministry (i.e. Clement of Alexandria) are completely wrong. 'The year of favor' applies to the entire length of time from the apostles to the present age (i.e. the time when Irenaeus was writing = the reign of Severus).
This is a curious concept. It doesn't seem to have any scriptural support but - let's face - Irenaeus always finds a way to support his beliefs with scripture. The more I started to think about it, I could see that there were parallels between this understanding and Apollinaris's interpretation of the Seventy Weeks. Under this system the first 49 years (7 weeks) sees the establishment of the Church by 'the Christ' and then the following 434 years will see the Temple (= the Church) established culminating in the appearance of the Antichrist and the end of the world in 482 CE.
Irenaeus's statement (Adv Haer 2.22.1) that Isaiah's prophecy assumes a long period of 'favor' followed by a final 'judgment' fits Apollinaris's system perfectly even though Daniel 9:24 - 27 isn't mentioned explicitly:
It is very significant that immediately following this statement the idea that Jesus was 'almost fifty' follows. This is the clearest indication that Irenaeus has Daniel 9:24 - 27 in mind (even if it isn't referenced explicitly. Apollinaris makes clear that the Seventy Weeks is meant here i.e. (7 weeks = the life of Jesus) (62 weeks = the establishment of the Church) (1 week = the coming of the Antichrist and the end of the world).The acceptable year of the Lord, again, is this present time, in which those who believe Him are called by Him, and become acceptable to God--that is, the whole time from His advent onwards to the consummation [of all things], during which He acquires to Himself as fruits [of the scheme of mercy] those who are saved. For, according to the phraseology of the prophet, the day of retribution follows the [acceptable] year; and the prophet will be proved guilty of falsehood if the Lord preached only for a year, and if he speaks of it. For where is the day of retribution? For the year has passed, and the day of retribution has not yet come; but He still "makes His sun to rise upon the good and upon the evil, and sends rain upon the just and unjust."(5) And the righteous suffer persecution, are afflicted, and are slain, while sinners are possessed of abundance, and "drink with the sound of the harp and psaltery, but do not regard the works of the Lord."(6) But, according to the language [used by the prophet], they ought to be combined, and the day of retribution to follow the [acceptable] year. For the words are, "to proclaim the acceptable year of the Lord, and the day of retribution." This present time, therefore, in which men are called and saved by the Lord, is properly understood to be denoted by "the acceptable year of the Lord;" and there follows on this "the day of retribution," that is, the judgment ... As then this day does not signify one which consists of twelve hours, but the whole time during which believers in Christ suffer and are put to death for His sake, so also the year there mentioned does not denote one which consists of twelve months, but the whole time of faith during which men hear and believe the preaching of the Gospel, and those become acceptable to God who unite themselves to Him.
Now whenever we develop a new interpretation like this we need to find something else - a piece of evidence - that supports the idea and is wholly independent from it. I think I found that in Eusebius reference in Book Six of Church History of a peculiar interpretation of the Seventy Weeks linked to the time of Severus:
I have tried to think of a system whereby a Christian could have made the Seventy Weeks 'end' c. 202 CE. But then I noticed that Eusebius never says this. 'Brings the chronology down to the tenth year of Severus' just means that the Seventy Weeks were understood to run through to 201 CE. It is we and our limited imaginations who think that BECAUSE there was a disturbance associated with this system IT HAD TO MEAN that the Seventy Weeks 'ended' then.At this time another writer, Judas, discoursing about the seventy weeks in Daniel, brings down the chronology to the tenth year of the reign of Severus. He thought that the coming of Antichrist, which was much talked about, was then near. So greatly did the agitation caused by the persecution of our people at this time disturb the minds of many.
But since Judas was a Christian (= notice the reference to 'the Antichrist') Jesus surely had to figure at some point during the chronology of Daniel which is made up of only a few basic building blocks. If Daniel 9:24 - 27 was a Lego set there would be one 'piece' 49 units long, another 434 units long and then two pieces 3.5 units long. In any event, there is no way to make the Seventy Weeks end in 202 CE.
But then again, Eusebius doesn't say that. The fact that the Antichrist was 'near' doesn't exclude the possibility that Judas's system was the same as Apollinaris's. Christians have been saying that the 'Antichrist' was 'near' forever. There were Christians who assumed that the 6000 years were ending in 300 or so years. That would be considered 'near' or 'at hand.'
All that Eusebius says really is that a figure c. 202 CE must have been raised to prominence owing to his conviction that he and his fellow co-religionists were living within the period of favor (= Daniel's temple being rebuilt). He alarmed his co-religionists by claiming that the Antichrist was coming soon to end the 'good times.' So I ask, was Irenaeus = Judas? After all 202 CE is the traditional date for the martyrdom of Irenaeus - http://books.google.com/books?id=FWM1bq ... CE&f=false