Ken Olson wrote: ↑Thu Apr 07, 2022 5:13 am
If I'm interpreting the question correctly, you are asking which declension the nomen sacrum Iota Sigma/Upsilon/Nun overline would be because it does not fit any standard declension. (Your question does not have anything to do with whether Isis would fit).
To extrapolate, the implication of the question is that you contest the common understanding that Jesus is second declension with an irregular dative (different in the LXX and the NT) in that it does not end in Omega with a Iota subscript ( ῳ) . But saying it has an irregular dative is arguably the same as saying it does not fit the second declension.
I don't know how to explain the irregular dative. This is one of many times I miss Ben Smith's participation in the forum. Ben was better at that kind of thing than I am.
Do we have any examples of Ἰησοῦς being written out in the dative? I don't know.
Best,
Ken
You are, thanks
common understanding that Jesus is second declension with an irregular dative (different in the LXX and the NT) in that it does not end in Omega with a Iota subscript ( ῳ)
See, that's invaluable - the last part is indeed what triggered me, and the first part is a gem that I'll immediately verify.
The thing is, Ἰησοῦς in full only occurs in Melchizedek, very first line:
https://ccdl.claremont.edu/digital/iiif ... efault.jpg
Coptic, so no conjugation / case: ⲓⲏⲥⲟⲩⲥ ⲡⲉ ⲭ̅ⲥ̅
I've had 4 years of greek in Grammar School, though it is over 3 decades ago. From a nominative IS to an accusative IN is a no-brainer, yet the genitive and dative being the same is absolutely, entirely, tremendously impossible. In Latin the dative and ablative usually are the same but the entire reason for there being cases is of course the essential property of them being different enough in order to be able to bloody use them!!!
You can have an uncle called Ken, perhaps even a sister called Ken, but not a brother - it would be just too confusing.
There MUST be something behind this, a thought, an idea - because this conjugation tells us that we have not 4 but only 3 different "forms of Jesus":
the subject Jesus: nominative
the object Jesus: accusative
the xyz Jesus: genitive, dative, everything else: to/in/of/for/about/on/at/from/by Jesus
which is fine by me, but WHY?!
And that's not all: XS is treated in the same way:
ο χρς
του χρυ
τω ???
τον χρν
χρε (vocative)
I can't find a dative (and only now spot that I have dative and genitive reversed in this earlier post, apologies)
What the hell is this?! I've gone by Bezae, perhaps also should go by Sinaiticus, perhaps even others. 2 Cor 11:2 is an evident 'to Christ' and so is Ephesians 5:24