Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

By rare, I mean that outside of the Gospels it appears only 4 times (in Hebrews, in Acts, and twice in Revelation to John).

Edited because I remembered something incorrectly or was using an inaccurate source.

Other concepts within the Gospels appear throughout the whole NT.

I have little doubt that mainstream biblical scholarship has answers to this question, and learning them here would be interesting, but I ask here in order to learn what less mainstream opinions may be.

Maybe Paul wanted to avoid any confusion / conflict with the Enochian Son of Man who precedes his epistles ?
Even if he compose his christ using 1 Enoch...

Sinouhe wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:13 am Maybe Paul wanted to avoid any confusion / conflict with the Enochian Son of Man who precedes his epistles ?
Even if he compose his christ using 1 Enoch...

That would only apply to Pauline literature, though, and the NT has multiple strands within it.

ABuddhist wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:20 am

Sinouhe wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:13 am Maybe Paul wanted to avoid any confusion / conflict with the Enochian Son of Man who precedes his epistles ?
Even if he compose his christ using 1 Enoch...

That would only apply to Pauline literature, though, and the NT has multiple strands within it.

Hebrews use the term "son of man".
The pastorals and pseudo-Paul are influenced by Paul.
James hardly mentions Jesus.

Sinouhe wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:24 am

ABuddhist wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:20 am

Sinouhe wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:13 am Maybe Paul wanted to avoid any confusion / conflict with the Enochian Son of Man who precedes his epistles ?
Even if he compose his christ using 1 Enoch...

That would only apply to Pauline literature, though, and the NT has multiple strands within it.

Hebrews use the term "son of man".

Which verse, if I may ask? One of the first books about the Bible which I readed claimed that the term "Son of Man" appears only in the Gospels and Acts in the NT.

It's an Aramaism. Although Son of Adam, son of Ish Psalm 49

ABuddhist wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:28 am

Sinouhe wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:24 am

ABuddhist wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:20 am

Sinouhe wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:13 am Maybe Paul wanted to avoid any confusion / conflict with the Enochian Son of Man who precedes his epistles ?
Even if he compose his christ using 1 Enoch...

That would only apply to Pauline literature, though, and the NT has multiple strands within it.

Hebrews use the term "son of man".

Which verse, if I may ask? One of the first books about the Bible which I readed claimed that the term "Son of Man" appears only in the Gospels and Acts in the NT.

Hebrews 2:6

In Revelation too : 1:12-13

ABuddhist wrote: ↑Sun Apr 24, 2022 10:03 am By rare, I mean that outside of the Gospels it appears only once, in Acts (and perhaps in Hebrews, according to Sinouhe).

Other concepts within the Gospels appear throughout the whole NT.

I have little doubt that mainstream biblical scholarship has answers to this question, and learning them here would be interesting, but I ask here in order to learn what less mainstream opinions may be.

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1 Acts, 1 Hebrews, 2 Revelation

And 84 in the Gospels, and none in Paul. Yup